No! That's the
really fascinating thing about comparative advantage; you can have comparative advantage in
something without having absolute advantage in anything---you can be worse than everyone else at
doing literally everything, and it still makes sense for you to do some things because you're
less worse at that than you are at everything else.
For
a surprisingly realistic example, let's compare the United States and Vietnam. Furthermore for
simplicity let's pretend there are only two goods in the world, shoes (which you can think of as
standing in for low-tech textiles) and cars (which you can think of standing in for high-tech
capital-intensive manufacturing). Nothing else, just shoes and cars.
Now
suppose that the United States has the...
Thursday, 10 July 2008
If a country has the comparative advantage in producing a product, then must that country also have the absolute advantage in producing that product?
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
To what degree were the U.S., Great Britain, Germany, the USSR, and Japan successful in regards to their efforts in economic mobilization during the...
This is an enormous question that can't really be answered fully in this small space. But a few generalizations can be made. Bo...
-
The love that exists between CÄrudatta and VasantasenÄ is clearly very strong as it endures throughout all manner of trials and tr...
-
We are given only a few glimpses of the lives of inner party members. However, those glimpses show us that this small group of party...
-
Eliza Doolittle undergoes various transformations as she is changed from a poor, Cockney, downtrodden flower girl to a lady who is d...
No comments:
Post a Comment